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A question about a recipe: Paule Caillat's Brown Butter Tart Crust


Regarding the flour recommendation of 5 ounces or a mounded cupful, wouldn't a cupful be 8 ounces?

Also, is there any recipe for which this would not be an ideal substitute for the traditional pie dough? I was thinking of making a blueberry pie, and now I'm considering swapping this dough for the usual.

asked by ATG117 over 4 years ago
4 answers 1710 views

Mrs. Larkin is a trusted source on Baking.

added over 4 years ago

Regarding the first part of your question, technically, yes. But a cupful of flour is measured more accurately by weight first, after being fluffed/aerated, hence the 5 oz. measurement.

I only use King Arthur Flour, and their 1-cup measurement is usually 4.5 ounces.

Kristen Miglore

Kristen is the Creative Director of Food52

added over 4 years ago

As mrslarkin points out, measuring flour by volume (cupfuls, mounded or otherwise) can really vary depending on how well it's been sifted, so if possible, use David Lebovitz' recommended weight measurement of 5 ounces. Or just go with your gut and visual cues, like the recipe author Paule Caillat does. It will probably be good, no matter what.

I've never tried rolling this dough out to make a top crust for pie, but a few people did and reported success in the comments of Lebovitz' original post: http://www.davidlebovitz...

Let us know how it goes!

added over 4 years ago

Regarding the first question: there are 8 fluid ounces in one cup of liquid. But when you're measuring flour and other non-liquid things, the ounces you're measuring then are dry, weight ounces.

1 cup of flour does not weigh the same as 1 cup of sugar, due to density of particles, mass, blah blah blah.

While you can actually not cram more than 8 fluid ounces of liquid into a cup, you can cram more flour into a cup depending on how sifted or unsifted the flour is, among other factors.

added over 4 years ago

Many thanks. This makes a lot of sense.